8.02.2007
"he shall not regard the desire of women"
Da 11:37 Neither shall he regard the God of his fathers, nor the desire of women, nor regard any god: for he shall magnify himself above all.
Some have asserted that this means the antichrist will be a homosexual, but the text does not necessitate this. It says that "he shall magnify himself above all", the desire of women included, so the antichrist may actually be celibate, we do not know. I only say this because if people are thinking "he's not outwardly gay, he can't be the antichirst!", they are basing their reasoning on an idea that is not found in Scipture. I think this is the type of "invisible glue" that holds the pre-trib theory together... it's "invisible" because you won't find it in Scripture, and once you take it away, the whole theory falls apart. These are things that are keeping people from looking into what may be the actually fourth beast, like the idea that the antichrist's covenant will be a seven-year peace treaty specefic to Israel, when Scripture merely says it will be a "covenant with many". There is also the idea that "our gathering together unto Him" and "the day of Christ" are two separate events in 2 Thess. 2, when the text does not differentiate between the two. If you look in 1 Thess 5., you see that Paul tells the Church in Thessolonica to watch for an event that will indicate when the Day of the Lord will be imminent... why would he tell the Church to watch for something that they would not be around to see("when they(Israel) say 'peace and safety', and then sudden destruction cometh upon them", also mentioned in Zecheriah 14, and Luke 21:20-25, among other places)? In the New Testament, the "Day of the Lord", the "Day of Christ", the "Day of Jesus Christ", and the "Day of our Lord Jesus Christ" all refer to one event, spoken of in Isaiah 2, Isaiah 13, Joel 2, Joel 3:14-21, Amos 5:18-20, Zecheriah 14, and Malachi 4:5, if anyone wants to study it out. I'm not totally sure yet, but the phrase's usage in Obediah and Zepheniah seem to be referring to an already-past event, like other places in the OT where it definitely is referring to an event already fulfilled. I believe the passages I mentioned are without question referring to the Day of the Lord, though.
Oh yeah, I forgot what this post was originally about. Javier Solana has a wife and two kids, but he's lived apart from them for 12 years(see wikipedia entry). Doesen't seem to have much regard for the desire, if you ask me.
Some have asserted that this means the antichrist will be a homosexual, but the text does not necessitate this. It says that "he shall magnify himself above all", the desire of women included, so the antichrist may actually be celibate, we do not know. I only say this because if people are thinking "he's not outwardly gay, he can't be the antichirst!", they are basing their reasoning on an idea that is not found in Scipture. I think this is the type of "invisible glue" that holds the pre-trib theory together... it's "invisible" because you won't find it in Scripture, and once you take it away, the whole theory falls apart. These are things that are keeping people from looking into what may be the actually fourth beast, like the idea that the antichrist's covenant will be a seven-year peace treaty specefic to Israel, when Scripture merely says it will be a "covenant with many". There is also the idea that "our gathering together unto Him" and "the day of Christ" are two separate events in 2 Thess. 2, when the text does not differentiate between the two. If you look in 1 Thess 5., you see that Paul tells the Church in Thessolonica to watch for an event that will indicate when the Day of the Lord will be imminent... why would he tell the Church to watch for something that they would not be around to see("when they(Israel) say 'peace and safety', and then sudden destruction cometh upon them", also mentioned in Zecheriah 14, and Luke 21:20-25, among other places)? In the New Testament, the "Day of the Lord", the "Day of Christ", the "Day of Jesus Christ", and the "Day of our Lord Jesus Christ" all refer to one event, spoken of in Isaiah 2, Isaiah 13, Joel 2, Joel 3:14-21, Amos 5:18-20, Zecheriah 14, and Malachi 4:5, if anyone wants to study it out. I'm not totally sure yet, but the phrase's usage in Obediah and Zepheniah seem to be referring to an already-past event, like other places in the OT where it definitely is referring to an event already fulfilled. I believe the passages I mentioned are without question referring to the Day of the Lord, though.
Oh yeah, I forgot what this post was originally about. Javier Solana has a wife and two kids, but he's lived apart from them for 12 years(see wikipedia entry). Doesen't seem to have much regard for the desire, if you ask me.
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Parpcofriends say : WHO WAS ,AND WAS NOT AND WHO WILL BE THE BEAST THE ANTICHRIST ,COULD IT BE JUDAS ,WHO JESUS SAID OF "I HAVE CHOSEN THE TWELVE AND ONE OF YOU IS DIABOLUS SON OF PERDITION .THE SON OF THE DEVIL ,WHO THE BIBLE REFERRS TO GOING TO HIS OWN PLACE AND REVELATION SAYSS THAT THE BEAST WILL ASCEND FROM THE ABYSS AND KILL THE TWO WITESSESES.COULD IT BE TRUE THAT JUDAS IS THE ANTICHRIST AND WILL RECIEVE THE DEVILS POWERS????? Hi to all .It seams to me that the Babylon that was destroied and the Babylon ,referred to in revelations,are two seperate issuses.I am reading manuscript written a goog few years back,on the book of revelations.THE TITLE.The revelation of Jesus Christ,which God gave unto HIM,to show unto His servants things which must shortly come to pass;and He sent and signified it by His angel unto His servant John;who bare record of the word of God,and of the testimony of Jesus Christ,and of all things that he saw.The blessing.Blessed is he that 'readeth,'and they that 'hear' the words of this prophecy,and 'keep'those things which are written therein:fot the time is at hand." Rev.1:1-3.The writer of this maniscript has spent 25 years of study of the book of revelation and twice within 6 yearsthe writer gave a 4 months course of sunday morning sremons to his poeple on the book of revelations.This maniscript also talks of that Baylon in revelations is all things to do with money and worldly gains.It talks of the book of Daniel that explains and backs up revelations .Talks of the statue with iron and clay feet ,which represents the four world powers that have ruled before (Babylonian,Medo-Persian,Grecian,Romans,kings of the north (SYRIA)and kings of the south (Egypt)It describes the 10 toes and the ten horns of the beast as been the same .And it describes the ANTI CHRIST as possibly been Judas ,who will ascend out of the bottomless pit(abyss),and go into perdition.As this "beast"is the same that slays the "two witnesses" he is the anti christ.But why was Judas called the "son of perdition"?Was he the son of satan by some women ,or was he simply indwelt by satan?Here we must let the Scriptures speak for themseves.In John 6:70-71 we read that Jesus said "Have notI chosen yo twelve,and one of you is a Devil?He spake of Judas Iscariot the son of Simon ;for he it was that should betray Him,being one of the Twelve." In no other passage than this is the word "Devil"applied to anyone but Satan himself.Here the word is "DIABOLUS", THE DEFINITE ARTICLE IS EMPLOYED ,AND IT SHOULD READ ---"and one of you is THE DEVIL."This would makeJudas the DEVIL incarnate,or the "MYSTERY OF INIQUITY"AND EXPLAIN WHY JESUS IN JOHN 17:12 CALLS HIM THE "SON OF PERDITION."This is the only place in the Scriptuers where the word " diabolus"is applied to a human being,and it implies an incarnation.While "PERDITION" IS A "place"(rev:17:8,11),it is also a "condition into which men fall (1.Tim.6:9 ;Heb. 10:39_,and while men who have committed the "Unpardonable Sin)are "sons of perdition,"because the are destined to the place of irrevocably lost ,yet Judas and the antichrist are the "sons of perdition"in a special sense ,for they are the SONS OF THE AUTHOR OF "PERDITION"---THE DEVIL. That is they are not merely "obsessed" or controlled by the Devil. the DEVIL has incarnated himself in them ,and for the time being ,to all practical purpose ,they are the very Devil himself.The next question that arises is :If Judas and the antchrist are both called the "son of perdition:,are they one and the same,or are there two "SONS OF PERDITION" .Here we must anticipate.Turning to rev.11:7 ,we read that the "Beast"that slays the "Two Witnesses" acends out of the "Bottomless Pit" (Abyss),and that " Beast" is the ANTICHRIST.Now how did he get into the " ABYSS"? Well, if there is only one "SON OF PERDITION,"and Judas and the Antichrist are one and the same ,then he got in the ABYSS when Judas went to his "Own Place " (the ABYSS).Acts 1:25.Of no other person is it said anywhere in the Scriptures that he went "to his own place "Again in rev.17:8 it is said -----"The 'Beasr' that thou sawest was ,and is not:and shall acend out of the 'Bottomless Pit'(Abyss),and go into " Perdition" From this we learn in Johns days the "Beast" "Was Not,"but that he had been before on earth,and was to come again,that he was to Ascend from the Bottomless Pit.This is positive proof that the Antichrist has been on earth before,and that when he comes in the future he will come from th "A BYSS" The question then arises ,when was "Antichrist"on the earth before.Is Judas and Antichrist are one and the same the enigma is solved.When Judas was on earth, he WAS;when Judas went to his "Own Place" he " WAS NOT";when Judas comes back from the "Abyss" he will be---THE ANTICHRIST.The author of this maniscript does not insist on this view of Judas and Antichrist being correct ,but with open mind he accepts it,because it seems to be the only logical solution of both Judas and Antichrist being called the "SON OF PERDITION".
Parpcofriends say : WHO WAS ,AND WAS NOT AND WHO WILL BE THE BEAST THE ANTICHRIST ,COULD IT BE JUDAS ,WHO JESUS SAID OF "I HAVE CHOSEN THE TWELVE AND ONE OF YOU IS DIABOLUS SON OF PERDITION .THE SON OF THE DEVIL ,WHO THE BIBLE REFERRS TO GOING TO HIS OWN PLACE AND REVELATION SAYSS THAT THE BEAST WILL ASCEND FROM THE ABYSS AND KILL THE TWO WITESSESES.COULD IT BE TRUE THAT JUDAS IS THE ANTICHRIST AND WILL RECIEVE THE DEVILS POWERS????? Hi to all .It seams to me that the Babylon that was destroied and the Babylon ,referred to in revelations,are two seperate issuses.I am reading manuscript written a goog few years back,on the book of revelations.THE TITLE.The revelation of Jesus Christ,which God gave unto HIM,to show unto His servants things which must shortly come to pass;and He sent and signified it by His angel unto His servant John;who bare record of the word of God,and of the testimony of Jesus Christ,and of all things that he saw.The blessing.Blessed is he that 'readeth,'and they that 'hear' the words of this prophecy,and 'keep'those things which are written therein:fot the time is at hand." Rev.1:1-3.The writer of this maniscript has spent 25 years of study of the book of revelation and twice within 6 yearsthe writer gave a 4 months course of sunday morning sremons to his poeple on the book of revelations.This maniscript also talks of that Baylon in revelations is all things to do with money and worldly gains.It talks of the book of Daniel that explains and backs up revelations .Talks of the statue with iron and clay feet ,which represents the four world powers that have ruled before (Babylonian,Medo-Persian,Grecian,Romans,kings of the north (SYRIA)and kings of the south (Egypt)It describes the 10 toes and the ten horns of the beast as been the same .And it describes the ANTI CHRIST as possibly been Judas ,who will ascend out of the bottomless pit(abyss),and go into perdition.As this "beast"is the same that slays the "two witnesses" he is the anti christ.But why was Judas called the "son of perdition"?Was he the son of satan by some women ,or was he simply indwelt by satan?Here we must let the Scriptures speak for themseves.In John 6:70-71 we read that Jesus said "Have notI chosen yo twelve,and one of you is a Devil?He spake of Judas Iscariot the son of Simon ;for he it was that should betray Him,being one of the Twelve." In no other passage than this is the word "Devil"applied to anyone but Satan himself.Here the word is "DIABOLUS", THE DEFINITE ARTICLE IS EMPLOYED ,AND IT SHOULD READ ---"and one of you is THE DEVIL."This would makeJudas the DEVIL incarnate,or the "MYSTERY OF INIQUITY"AND EXPLAIN WHY JESUS IN JOHN 17:12 CALLS HIM THE "SON OF PERDITION."This is the only place in the Scriptuers where the word " diabolus"is applied to a human being,and it implies an incarnation.While "PERDITION" IS A "place"(rev:17:8,11),it is also a "condition into which men fall (1.Tim.6:9 ;Heb. 10:39_,and while men who have committed the "Unpardonable Sin)are "sons of perdition,"because the are destined to the place of irrevocably lost ,yet Judas and the antichrist are the "sons of perdition"in a special sense ,for they are the SONS OF THE AUTHOR OF "PERDITION"---THE DEVIL. That is they are not merely "obsessed" or controlled by the Devil. the DEVIL has incarnated himself in them ,and for the time being ,to all practical purpose ,they are the very Devil himself.The next question that arises is :If Judas and the antchrist are both called the "son of perdition:,are they one and the same,or are there two "SONS OF PERDITION" .Here we must anticipate.Turning to rev.11:7 ,we read that the "Beast"that slays the "Two Witnesses" acends out of the "Bottomless Pit" (Abyss),and that " Beast" is the ANTICHRIST.Now how did he get into the " ABYSS"? Well, if there is only one "SON OF PERDITION,"and Judas and the Antichrist are one and the same ,then he got in the ABYSS when Judas went to his "Own Place " (the ABYSS).Acts 1:25.Of no other person is it said anywhere in the Scriptures that he went "to his own place "Again in rev.17:8 it is said -----"The 'Beasr' that thou sawest was ,and is not:and shall acend out of the 'Bottomless Pit'(Abyss),and go into " Perdition" From this we learn in Johns days the "Beast" "Was Not,"but that he had been before on earth,and was to come again,that he was to Ascend from the Bottomless Pit.This is positive proof that the Antichrist has been on earth before,and that when he comes in the future he will come from th "A BYSS" The question then arises ,when was "Antichrist"on the earth before.Is Judas and Antichrist are one and the same the enigma is solved.When Judas was on earth, he WAS;when Judas went to his "Own Place" he " WAS NOT";when Judas comes back from the "Abyss" he will be---THE ANTICHRIST.The author of this maniscript does not insist on this view of Judas and Antichrist being correct ,but with open mind he accepts it,because it seems to be the only logical solution of both Judas and Antichrist being called the "SON OF PERDITION".
ah sir, the above assumption is wrong - though I fleetingly considered it a possible clue to the AC's identity but dismissed based on the fact that the AC is the 8th king is Revelation 17:11 and was one of the 7 kings to have already lived. the book of Daniel (chpt. 7) gives us a clue as to which kings (kingdoms) are the candidates to be the AC:
1. Nebuchadnezzar (Babylon - the winged Lion)
3. Darius (Media & Persia - the lop-sided bear)
3. Alexander the Great (Grecia - )
4. Rome (Nero/Domition)
So the 4th beast - Rome - the beast that is more dynamic than the other 3 preceding beasts is where the little horn (the Antichrist) comes out of.
Though Jerusalem was under Roman rule at the time John got the Revelation Judas never was a king in the Roman empire let alone Jerusalem. Jerusalem only had one king, as we know: Herod. Though the Jews truly had the real King of Kings, the Lord Jesus Christ The Righteous.
So this little horn is from the Roman Empire.... or so it would seem.
Can I get at least one Amen form someone? Anyone? no? Oh well. I'll say it then: Amen!
This is something really weird actually I'm not religious but I think that's something out of context because a homosexual antichrist I can't believe it.
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